2013年12月31日星期二

IBM certification 000-M43 exam free exercises updates

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Exam Code: 000-M43
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SUT Intermediate Level Technical Sales Mastery Test V1.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are mandatory parameters that need to be adjusted at both end points of a SIP trunk?
A. The MTU size.
B. The preferred codec.
C. The Music On Hold number.
D. The target IP address and the port number.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Assume there is a company using SUT with 1 Headquarter and 2 locations each in Europe, America
and Asia. In each site there are 100 subscribers and there is one PBX and one PSTN Gateway. In the
Headquarter, there is a Media Server for Announcements and Conferencing. Each subscriber has a SUT
Client and a Desk phone. Which of the answers below would match to a best practice numbering plan
configuration?
A. One common numbering plan and ten private numbering plans.
B. One common numbering plan and nine private numbering plans.
C. One common numbering plan and six private numbering plans.
D. One common numbering plan and three private numbering plans.
E. Three common numbering plans and three private numbering plans.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why is it advisable to have at least one PNP for SUT subscribers and a separate PNP and endpoint for
the customers PBX.?
A. It allows Display Number Modification (DNM) rules to be created separately for subscribers calls to to
the PBX, and incoming calls from the PBX.
B. It allows digits to be added/deleted for the call coming from the PBX.
C. SUT subscribers needs extra attention during configuration.
D. A and B
Answer: D

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NO.4 The following is true of a business group (BG)?
A. Each BG has at least one common numbering plan (CNP).
B. Each BG has at least one private numbering plan (PNP).
C. There is no geographical boundary for a BG.
D. A and B
E. B and C
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct regarding SUT configurations?
A. There is no conference server available in the small SUT configuration, only in the large SUT
configuration.
B. Besides the Sametime Server, a small SUT configuration needs one single server while a large SUT
configuration needs three servers.
C. One media server is required per location.
D. The small SUT configuration uses one server for TAS and Media Server.
E. A and D
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M90
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Analytics Theory Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following rules can be used to build categories?
A. Group documents by specifying a URL pattern.
B. Categorize documents that match complex query.
C. Identify documents based on specified keywords that occur in the document contents.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT available with a Text Analytics collection?
A. Search multiple collections.
B. Custom text extraction rules.
C. Deep inspection of analysis results.
D. Custom user dictionaries.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the difference between a crawler plug-in versus an export plug-in for the crawled documents.?
A. Only the export plug-in can export the crawled document to a file system.
B. The crawler plug-in can view the metadata while the export plug-in cannot.
C. The crawler plug-in can modify the crawled document while the export plug-in cannot.
D. None, they referred to the same plug-in.
Answer: C

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NO.4 One of the challenges in working with unstructured information is that traditional business intelligence
solutions are limited to which of the following?
A. Intranet search and analysis.
B. Reporting and analysis of only structured data.
C. Reporting and analysis of only non-structured data.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following views of the Text Miner is dedicated to analyze a three way correlation between a
pair of selected facets?
A. Deviations view.
B. Trends view.
C. Connections view.
D. Documents view.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-500
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Analytic Applications Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which three connectivity types are required by Adaptive Warehouse to operate properly? (Choose
three.)
A. a native (RDBMS) connection to the IBM Cognos 8 Content Store
B. a connection to your source data
C. a gateway URI connection to the IBM Cognos BI Server
D. a gateway URI connection to LDAP security services
E. a native (RDBMS) connection to your target warehouse database
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.2 What do you call a single dimension that supports distinct logical uses in a warehouse model?
A. an outrigger dimension
B. a role-playing dimension
C. a self-join dimension
D. a bridge dimension
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a purpose of the Adaptive Application Framework (AAF) Runtime version?
A. to execute Adaptive Analytics Reports
B. to execute the Adaptive Warehouse User Interface (UI)
C. to deploy Adaptive Warehouse generated Framework Manager models
D. to execute Adaptive Warehouse (AW) load management scripts
Answer: D

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NO.4 A warehouse fact object called "CERTIFY" is populated. Which database object would contain the SID
column references to the related dimensions?
A. CERTIFY_FX
B. CERTIFY
C. CERTIFY_DX
D. CERTIFY_MEASURES
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which situation would you use a factless fact.?
A. When numeric measurement values are not always available from the source system.
B. When the target warehouse is fully refreshed on a regular basis with numeric measurement values.
C. When business process events have no natural numeric measurement values.
D. When multi-grain measurement values will be stored on the fact table.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-918
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Portals & Web Apps IBM WebSphere Portlet Fact 7.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To deploy, run, and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIs that are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Jeffrey is reviewing the following section of a debugTracing.txt log.
What can he infer from this part of the log?
A. The main method took no time to execute.
B. The appMainPage took 46 seconds to load.
C. The varSampleApp variable changed during or after the appMainPage loaded.
D. The varSampleApp variable was set to Chicago prior to the loading of the appMainPage.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call
builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How
can he get WebSphere Portlet Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the
database access.?
A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder; this builder provides several fields that enable
detailed logging of performance information for database access.
B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy
the WAR file.
C. He must enable the Log Server Stats field in each SQL Call builder.
D. No changes are required; WebSphere Portlet Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all
executed actions, such as database access calls.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Anna has been testing a model and is concerned about the time certain actions seem to be taking. Her
development environment is a high-end system, and other portlets she has developed have not exhibited
the kind of response time lag that she and her testers perceive. She suspects one of the data services
builders is experiencing network latency, but is unsure where the real problem lies. What actions can she
take to help isolate the performance issue?
A. Add counters to the builder calls that are suspect.
B. Consult the performance log, which is created by default with each model run.
C. Enable system tracing in the run configuration tab to log the execution time for each action (page or
method).
D. Dedicate a larger Java HEAP_SIZE to the main method associated with the model that is suspect.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Pat wants to know how many web service calls are being made in a given time frame, how long on
average each web service call is taking, and how many web service calls are failing. How can Pat obtain
such performance information?
A. That information is not yet available from the WebSphere Portlet Factory web service support, but the
application can be built to log this information itself, if desired.
B. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs all requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed applications
WEB-INF/logs/event.log file.
C. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs web service requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed
applications WEB-INF/logs/serverStats.txt log file.
D. Enable this logging using the Performance field in the Web Service Call builder, and the
information comes back with the web service call results to the consumer model.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-913
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Websites with IBM Lotus Web Content Mgmt 7.0)
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Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 John is an author creating content for the ABC Corporation. After creating the content, he is trying to
preview and verify how the content shows in the website rendered from the same server. But when
previewed, the content is rendered in a new web page without the portal themes and skins.
What must he do to preview in a portal page?
A. To allow users to preview content in portal pages, John must select specific portal pages from the list
located under Allow authors to preview content in the local portal pages selected in Previewing Options
for Authoring portlet. He must also enter the URL to the page in the local portal server in the Allow authors
to preview content using the following URLs section.
B. To allow users to preview content in portal pages, John must select specific portal pages from the list
located under Allow authors to preview content in the local portal pages selected in Previewing Options
for Authoring portlet. The selected pages must contain a web content viewer to display the content.
C. You cannot preview the content as a portal page when authoring content. You must add the content to
the actual page with web content viewer and then directly access the page as a regular user and then
verify the display.
D. John must be a Administrator to preview the content in a portal page.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Eve is the Public Relations Manager for AT Corporation. She needs to post a new Event content object
to their website. At some point in the future, the Event must be removed from the live website, however it
should not be deleted from the repository. Who can accomplish this task, and how can the task be
accomplished?
A. An editor can click the Restart Workflow button.
B. An approver can click the Restart Workflow button.
C. An editor can click the Next Stage button to move the document to the next stage in the
Workflow. The next stage would need to have an Expire
action.
D. An approver can click the Next Stage button to move the document to the next stage in the Workflow.
The next stage would need to have an
Expire action.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Parker is a Lotus Web Content Management administrator. Sadie is a content contributor who creates
and manages content. When looking through versions of a content item, which of the following
functionality is available only to Parker?
A. Delete
B. Preview
C. Label
D. Restore as published
Answer: D

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NO.4 Ted has created an HTML component that references an Image component. He wants to change the
image but needs to check that the image is not being used anywhere else. What is the best way for him to
achieve this outcome?
A. Use the Advanced Search capability in Lotus Web Content Management to look for the
component name in any other components.
B. Change the image and check the site to see if any other pages have been affected.
C. Open the Image component and then use the View References -> Show references from item.
This action shows where the image is being
used
D. Open the Image component and then use the View References -> Show references to item.
This action shows where the image is being used.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which option best describes how you remove content items from site areas that it is linked to.?
A. Delete the linked content to remove all the links.
B. Using the Remove Links button, select a site area and click Remove Links. Then, select the content
items that you would like to remove.
C. Using the Link To button, select the content items to remove links from, then click Link To.Select the
site area that you would like to remove
A link from and then click Remove.
D. Either B or C
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following web content management objects can be used to reference site area
components?
A. Menus and navigators
B. Menus and presentation templates
C. Presentation templates and navigators
D. Navigators, presentation templates, and menus
Answer: C

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NO.7 The ABC Company site gets redesigned and content creators are required to edit the site framework
by moving some site areas from one section of the site framework to another. How can this task be done?
A. Content authors must navigate to a site area list and select a site area, click move, then select a library
and the the site area to move to.
B. You cannot move a site area from one library to another.
C. Content authors must navigate to a site area list and select a site area, click Save As, then select a
library and the site area, to save to the new
library. Then, delete the site area in the old library.
D. A site area must not have any content to be moved to another library.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Hunter has just created a library on his Workplace Web Content Management server. The News and
Events library is used to hold various press releases and other company news to be posted to the
company intranet. Kimberly, the Marketing person responsible for creating the content, cannot see this
new library in the Authoring portlet. Which of the following statements is the reason that she cannot see
the new library?
A. Kimberly needs to configure the Authoring portlet and update the Library Selection section andadd the
new library.
B. Hunter needs to configure the Authoring portlet and update the Library Selection section andadd the
new library.
C. Kimberly needs to be added to the Workplace Web Content Management administrators group.
Only administrators can work in multiple
libraries.
D. Hunter needs to modify the wpconfig.properties file and update the WcmLibraries setting toinclude the
newly added library.
Answer: B

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NO.9 George has been given the task of creating a layout for a new page. The page is to have a breadcrumb
that tells users exactly where they are in the website. Which of the following solutions allows George to
accomplish this task?
A. Create a navigator that has the Start Type set to "Current Site Area" and Preceding Siblings Level set
to "All."
B. Create a navigator that has the Start Type set to "Current Site Area" and Ancestor Level set to "All."
C. Create a menu that has the Start Type set to "Current Site Area" and Preceding Siblings Level set to
"All."
D. Create a menu that has the Start Type set to "Current Site Area" and Ancestor Level set to "All."
Answer: B

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NO.10 Christine is a content creator. She has created a content item that has had many modifications made to
it after it was published. She would like to view the modifications that she made to the content item last
month. How can she accomplish this task?
A. Restore the content library to a previous version.
B. Open the content item in Edit mode. Click the Version button, select the version, and click the Preview
button.
C. Create a draft of the content item and select which version to publish. Then, click the Preview button to
view the content's details.
D. Open the content item in Read mode. Click the Version button, select the version, and click the
Preview button.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Matt uses WebDAV as much as possible when working with WebSphere Portal. Which of the following
statements is correct about working with WebDAV?
A. You cannot create a taxonomy via WebDAV, only categories
B. A taxonomy can be deleted, even if it still contains child items option.
C. A taxonomy is created by creating a folder in the form of wcm.taxonomy.<taxonomy name>where
<taxonomy name> is the name of the
taxonomy to be created.
D. No web content management artifacts are accessible using WebDAV.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Kellan is a content creator. He is creating Job Posting content items. The content items should only be
published on the live website until the end of the current month. Kellan specifies an expiry date on the
content items for the end of the current month. What also must be done to ensure that the content is
removed from the live website on that date?
A. An administrator must delete the content item from the library on that date.
B. The expiry date must be set in a Date Component that should be added to the content item.
C. The content item's selected workflow must include an expire action.
D. Specify the expiry date in the icm.properties file.
Answer: C

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NO.13 When setting up the security for a library, what is the minimum role required to be able to purge items
from the library?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Administrator
D. Version Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.14 Dan is a content creator responsible for adding press release content to his company's website. All his
content goes through the PR Workflow. Today he is creating a special press release that needs to be seen
by several groups that are not normally given access using the PR Workflow.
How can Dan resolve this problem without contacting a developer?
A. Dan cannot resolve this on his own. Dan needs to contact the developer and have him modify the PR
Workflow.
B. From any content view, click More Actions / Update Readers. Dan then adds the appropriate groups to
the content from the Update Readers
page.
C. When creating the content, Dan should click the Read button in the System Defined area of the Access
section. Dan then adds the appropriate
groups to this section.
D. When creating the content, Dan should click the Select Additional Viewers button and add the
appropriate groups. The group is able to read the content item after it is published.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Marcel is the administrator for a web content management server. The Marketing department wants to
version all content that they create. What must Marcel do to allow the Marketing department to version
content?
A. Nothing, versioning is automatically enabled.
B. Marcel must enter this URL in a browser:
http://[HOST]:[PORT]/wps/wcm/connect/?MOD=VersioningEnablement
C. An administrator must modify the wpconfig.properties file and add the following line:
WcmVersioning=true
D. Marcel must enter this URL in a browser:
http://[HOST]:[PORT]/wps/wcm/connect/?MOD=AJPEResourceChecker&fix=true
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-612
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Author)
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NO.1 In Report Studio, an author creates a weekly sales report and modifies the global class settings in the
report. Which reports will this modification affect?
A. All reports.
B. Reports created using the same package.
C. Reports created within the log on session.
D. Only the current report.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In Report Studio, an author creates a list report containing columns for Staff Name, Order number, and
Revenue. The author wants to burst this report to various sales staff members. Each member should see
only data relating to sales they have made. What must the author do to specify that the burst report output
will contain only data for the appropriate sales staff member?
A. In the report layout, create a master-detail relationship on the Staff Name data item.
B. In the report layout, add the Staff Name data item as a property of the List object.
C. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Recipients.
D. In the burst options for the report, use the Staff Name data item to specify the Burst Groups.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An author creates a report for bursting. In Report Studio, the author sets the burst type for the report to
Directory entries. In Cognos Connection, the author sets the run options to burst the report and send the
report by email. If the email addresses for the burst recipients are accessible by IBM Cognos BI, what is
the expected result?
A. The report is burst to email addresses only.
B. The report is burst to both email addresses and directory entries.
C. The report is burst to directory entries only.
D. A warning message appears indicating a conflict in the run options.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In Report Studio, which variable requires the author to create values?
A. Style
B. String
C. Boolean
D. Language
Answer: B

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NO.5 In Report Studio, when would the author need to unlock cells on a report?
A. To merge two report types into a single report.
B. To merge query items into a single column.
C. To merge a query item into a text item.
D. To merge report objects in table.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In Report Studio, an author wants the report title to appear in the language in which the report is run.
What property of the report header must the author define to create this variable?
A. Style Variable
B. String Variable
C. Render Variable
D. Text Source Variable
Answer: D

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NO.7 In Report Studio, when creating a list report, what is the difference between creating a section and
creating a header?
A. Headers appear outside the list.
B. Sections appear outside the list.
C. Headers appear once at the top of the list.
D. Sections appear once at the top of the list.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about using a burst key to burst reports.?
A. A burst key can be added to a crosstab report.
B. A burst key can be added to a list report.
C. A burst key can be added to a chart report.
D. A burst key can be added to a map report.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An author creates a report in Report Studio. The report contains a parameter for the Product line query
item. The author wants to let users drill through to this report from a variety of reports created using the
GO Data Warehouse (query) package. To ensure that this target report contains data for the appropriate
products, the author wants to limit the report cells that users can drill through from in source reports. What
must the author do when creating the drill-through definition?
A. Set the Product line query item as the target of the drill-through definition.
B. Set the Product line query item as the scope of the drill-through definition.
C. Add a parameter for the Product line query to the drill-through definition.
D. Delete all data items except for the Product line query item from the drill-through definition.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In Report Studio, an author creates a report using Package A. Users should be able to drill through to
target reports created for this package. What must the author do?
A. Enable package drill-through behavior for the report.
B. Add this report as a source report for each target created for the package.
C. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package as targets for the source report.
D. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package to the scope of the report.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-109
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NO.1 An administrator must remove any installed efixes before attempting to install a new VIO Fix Pack.
Which VIO command will advise if any VIO efixes are actually present?
A. lslpp
B. emgr
C. lssw
D. oem_platform_level
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator has a requirement to back up a VIO server (VIOS) so that it can be rebuilt in the event
of a disaster.
Which set of actions will achieve this requirement.?
A. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Backup all Storage Pool Information. Run a
mksysb of the system.
B. Save "Upgrade Data" on the HMC. Backup all non rootvg volume groups using savevg. Run a mksysb
of the VIOS with the -U flag.
C. Backup non rootvg structures using savevgstruct. Capture virtual mappings to a file using viosbr. Run a
backupios
D. Capture the virtual network tuning to a file using the optimizenet command. Capture all virtual device
attributes to a file using the lsattr command. Run a backupios.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator is designing a new system for their existing batch environment. The current system is
a POWER5 570 with 16 cores and 128GB of RAM with a single LPAR running AIX 5.3. It takes 12 hours
to run their large batch job which is heavily CPU bound on 4 the available CPUs.
The new system will be a Power 770 with 16 cores, 128GB of RAM and the LPAR will run AIX 6.1.What
should be done to maximize the batch performance?
A. Activate TurboCore mode during batch processing
B. Disable Simultaneous Multi-threading
C. Disable Multiple Shared Processor Pools
D. Set the processor compatibility mode to POWER7
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator is attempting to configure a new deployment of 56 POWER7 Blades across 4 IBM
BladeCenter H chassis. Each blade will be installed with an IVM and 2 LPARs.IVM is installed and the
administrator checks that both LHEA ports are reporting a Link State of "Up." 2 LPARs are created and the
network traffic balanced by allocating one LHEA port to the first LPAR, the second port to the other. After
successfully installing the first LPAR via NIM, the administrator finds the second LPAR fails to netboot.
What should the administrator verify on the BladeCenter Chassis?
A. That 4 power supplies (PSU) have been installed.
B. That both the external LHEA ports have been cabled.
C. That a secondary I/O module has been installed and cabled.
D. That the Multi-Core Scaling (MCS) attribute is correctly set on both LHEA ports.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is performing a Live Partition Mobility (LPM) operation between two servers managed
by different HMCs.
While monitoring the performance of the partition, the virtual console window suddenly closes. What is the
most likely cause?
A. The virtual console is controlled by the HMC and closes when the second takes control of the partition.
B. The virtual console is a connection to the FSP of the physical server and closes when the LPAR
migrates.
C. The SSH keys have not been exchanged between HMCs.
D. The FSP has the MAC address for the first HMC cached in NVRAM.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator has the following configuration on a VIO Server:
Why is this error being displayed?
A. ent3 is configured as 'standard' instead of '802.3ad'
B. ent3 is a LHEA port and requires the -L flag
C. ent3 has no interface connected
D. ent3 is controlled by the SEA
Answer: D

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NO.7 A Linux LPAR is configured using 802.1Q.
The virtual Ethernet device is configured as an 802.1Q compatible adapter and has VLAN ID 5 configured
in the 802.1Q additional VLAN field.
The administrator runs the following commands on the Linux LPAR shell without errors:
vconfig add eth0 5ifconfig eth0 10.0.0.2 netmask 255.255.255.0
When the administrator tries to ping 10.0.0.1, the request times out.
What is the problem?
A. The VLAN ID should be in the VLAN-ID field in the virtual Network device configuration.
B. The administrator is using the incorrect Ethernet device.
C. The 8021q module is not loaded.
D. The 802.1Q interfaces are not supported on Linux on Power Systems servers.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What will cause a broadcast storm when configuring redundant VIO servers with SEA failover?
A. The secondary SEA is brought online before the configured primary SEA.
B. A mismatch of defined VLANs between the primary and secondary SEA.
C. The secondary SEA is created before enabling failover on the primary SEA.
D. Incorrect EtherChannel configuration on one SEA
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is required to support AME?
A. AIX LPARs
B. Virtual I/O Server
C. A maximum of 4GB of RAM per LPAR
D. On-demand memory feature enabled
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator is creating several LPARs on a new Power Systems server. The administrator knows
that Live Partition Mobility (LPM) will be used to distribute the workload between this new machine and
several others in the environment.
In addition to ensuring all storage is allocated through Virtual IO servers, what else must the administrator
take into consideration when creating the new LPARs?
A. LPAR names in the environment must be unique.
B. Redundant error path reporting must be configured.
C. Only LPARs belonging to the same workload group can be moved between servers.
D. The Virtual IO server code level must be the same across all servers.
Answer: A

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NO.11 The wlmstat -@ 2 command has been run from a global environment with the following results:
What action can an administrator take to set limits, so that both server1 and server2 use the same amount
of CPU resources?
A. Use the cpu_deallocate -P command to reduce the CPU resources on server2
B. Use the chsysres command to assign the same CPU attributes to both servers.
C. Use the chwpar -R command to set the CPU attributes for each server.
D. Use the syncwpar -E command to copy the CPU resource allocation from server1 to server2.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Requirements for a disaster recovery site are being collected. When considering restoring a VIO Server
mksysb to disaster recovery hardware,
what is required to ensure automatic virtual device recreation?
A. LPAR profiles must be accurately recreated on the foreign machine
B. Backups of both mksysb and user-defined structures are required from the VIO Server
C. The foreign machine must be of the same model and type
D. Configuration of the existing HMC needs to be preserved
Answer: A

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NO.13 How can an existing AIX 5.2 LPAR, which is using SAN storage, be migrated into a versioned WPAR
(Workload Partition)?
A. Using LPM, but downtime will be required.
B. Dynamically using LAM.
C. Backup and restore a mksysb.
D. Rezone the SAN storage and use NPIV.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What tool can an architect use to determine which is the smallest POWER7 server that will provide
equal or better overall performance than a POWER5 570?
A. Facts and Features Guide
B. LPAR Validation Tool
C. Configurator for eBusiness
D. Server Magic
Answer: A

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NO.15 When attempting to install a VIO client using NIM, an adminstrator finds that no disks are available for
installation. The disks are provided by NPIV through the virtual Fibre Channel adapter as described here:
Which of the following explains why is the administrator unable to see the disks?
A. The virtual fibre channel device has not been assigned to the client.
B. The HBA on the VIO server is not connected to the SAN.
C. The fibre device drivers are missing from the SPOT.
D. The LUNs have been incorrectly zoned.
Answer: D

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NO.16 An architect is looking at the implications of uncapped weights for a new POWER7 system. The
system will consist of four uncapped logical partitions with the following weightings:
Assuming all partitions have equal entitlement and virtual processor configurations in the partition profiles,
and request additional resources from the shared processor pool over a period of 1000 cycles, how many
cycles will be allocated to LPAR B?
A. 150
B. 250
C. 300
D. 1000
Answer: C

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NO.17 An administrator is preparing to upgrade the environment's dual Virtual I/O servers (VIOS) from V1.2
to V2.1
What must considered in preparation for this upgrade?
A. All client LPARs must be shutdown as both VIO servers have to be upgraded to V2.1 at the same time.
B. The VIOS must be upgraded to the latest fixpack of V1.5 before upgrading to V2.1.
C. The only upgrade method that will be supported is using NIM because the current VIOS is lower than
V1.3.
D. VIOS V2.1 requires AIX clients to be running AIX V6.1 at a minimum.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A Power 720 is being used to build 2 environments: Test and Production, with 2 LPARs in each
environment. Processor resources must be separated between the Test and Production environments to
reduce possible contention, while still being able to share processor resources inside each own
environment.
What are the two features required, as a minimum, to accomplish this? (Select 2)
A. IVM
B. HMC
C. PowerVM Express
D. PowerVM Standard
E. IVE
F. IBM Systems Director
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 An LPAR is configured using Virtual IO. It has two Virtual SCSI adapters, connecting it to two VIO
servers.
The disks presented over Virtual SCSI are available across both Virtual SCSI adapters (2 paths).
Assuming 20 disks are required, what is the maximum recommended queue depth to maximize
performance?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 510
D. 512
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which interface must be used to provide virtualization of tape library devices to client LPARs?
A. USB
B. LTO
C. Virtual SCSI
D. Virtual Fibre Channel
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-765
Exam Name: IBM (Systems Management Technical V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer would like to test their ability to send alerts from a server to the IBM Systems Director
server Which of the following commands can they use to simulate test events?
A. Genevent
B. Sendevent
C. Testevent
D. NetEvent
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following partners have developed plug-ins for IBM Systems Director?
A. CISCO, Brocade, Huawei and LSI
B. Intel, AMD, Citrix, VMware and CISCO
C. Blade Network Technologies, CISCO and QLogic
D. Brocade, CISCO, Emulex and QLogic
Answer: C

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NO.3 A POWER7 customer plans to monitor, detect, and automatically react to events and establish a
heartbeat between systems. The customer plans to enable automatic switch-over for resiliency. Which of
these IBM products meets these needs?
A. PowerVM
B. PowerHA
C. Systems Director VMControl
D. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Dell customer uses DRAC for systems management. Which of the following would be the IBM
equivalent.?
A. ASMP
B. ISMP
C. ASMA
D. IMM
Answer: D

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NO.5 A HP customer wants to integrate the ILO adapter events into Systems Director. Which of the following
protocols would be required?
A. CIM
B. SLP
C. SNMP
D. PET
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer currently uses IBM Systems Director to monitor IBM servers in their datacenter. They also
have DS8000 series storage and would like to monitor that through IBM Systems Director as well. Which
tool will allow them to accomplish this goal?
A. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
B. DS Storage Manager
C. Storage Control
D. IBM TotalStorage Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 A business partner systems management professional is speaking to a new customer that has many
different hardware and software vendors. They have asked the business partner to help them provide a
consolidation blueprint. Which of the following should be suggested to the customer?
A. Chiphopper study
B. TDA
C. ATS SCON (CDAT) study
D. Perform a Proof of Concept
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following Systems Director files would you edit to increase the light-path diagnostic LEDs
polling interval?
A. lightpath.properties
B. polling.properties
C. support.properties
D. config.properties
Answer: D

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NO.9 The IBM Systems Director Pre-Installation Utility scans the local system to identify potential problems
that could prevent IBM Systems Director from installing successfully. Which of the following problems can
be avoided by using the utility?
A. Insufficient disk space available
B. Unsupported hardware server
C. Unsupported database
D. Missing installation media
Answer: A

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NO.10 An IT Manager has experienced problems maintaining consistent firmware and driver versions
throughout their environment. Which of the following tools will allow them to standardize their firmware
and driver versions?
A. Systems Director Service and Support Manager
B. Systems Director Automation Manager
C. Systems Director Update Manager
D. Systems Director Real Time Diagnostics
Answer: C

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NO.11 A System x customer is evaluating IBM Systems Director, however they are still not completely sure
that they want to implement. Which of the following support offerings should a specialist offer them?
A. IBM Systems Director Support Pack
B. 90 Day Startup Support
C. SWMA
D. Support Line Agreement
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer is looking to implement a systems management methodology across the enterprise. What
standard would the customer use?
A. ISO 9000
B. ITIL
C. Six Sigma
D. SNIA
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer wants to change the boot order of multiple blades in a BladeCenter H. Which of the
following is the best place to accomplish this task?
A. IMM
B. UEFI
C. BOMC
D. AMM
Answer: D

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NO.14 The customer is near capacity for their data center. They would like to monitor and manage power
usage in the data center to plan for future growth. Which of the following products will help?
A. AEM
B. IBM Systems Director
C. Tivoli Usage Manager
D. Tivoli Power Center
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer wants to verify they have the correct licensing in place for BOFM. Where should they look?
A. IBM Systems Director
B. AMM License Manager
C. AMM General Settings
D. AMM File Management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M194
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 According to Verizon Business 2009 Data Breach Report, the majority of compromised
data__________?
A. occurs on database server level
B. resides outside of the firewall
C. is a result of laptop theft
D. happens because of insecure storage devices
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is false.?
A. Oracle Audit Vault does not rely on native logs.
B. Oracle Database Audit/Vault does not enforce separation of duties.
C. Oracle Database Vault does not support heterogeneous DB environments
D. Oracle Database/Audit Vault does not provide real-time monitoring and alerting.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the European Telco case, one of their immediate needs is to _________.
A. protect privacy of call records for compliance with data privacy laws
B. meet governance requirements
C. optimize database usage
D. migrate from Oracle to Microsoft database technology
Answer: A

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