2014年1月30日星期四

Hitachi certification HH0-400 best exam questions and answers

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Exam Code: HH0-400
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy
Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)
D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network
overhead
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Basel II is the second Basel Accord and represents recommendations by bank supervisors and central
bankers from 13 countries making up the Basel Committee on banking supervision to revise the
international standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank's capital.
Which three statements are true for Basel II? (Choose three.)
A.It can easily be circumvented by regulatory arbitrage.
B.It ensures that capital allocation is less risk conscious.
C.It ensures that capital allocation is more risk conscious.
D.It separates operational risk from credit risk, and quantifies both.
E.It attempts to align economic and regulatory capital more closely to reduce the scope for regulatory
arbitrage.
Answer: CDE

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NO.4 A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database's data and log volumes.
Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly
dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery
facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the
corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and
prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true for RPO? (Choose two.)
A.If the recovery point is within hours, no replication is necessary.
B.If the recovery point is within minutes, asynchronous (or off-line) replication may be suitable.
C.If the recovery point of an application is set to within seconds of a disaster occurring, synchronous (or
live) replication (duplication) of data should be considered.
D.Global clustering, manual migration or tape restore are various options that are dependent on the
acceptable time scales required to restore systems to full operations.
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which is required for I/O consistent recoverability?
A.Clustering software is in use at the recovery facility.
B.Recovery volumes have preserved write order fidelity.
C.Buffers on production hosts were fully de-staged to physical disk.
D.Log shipping is used to transfer transactions to the recovery facility.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are three regulatory requirements pertaining to data retention? (Choose three.)
A.Basel II
B.ISO 9000
C.SEC rule 17a
D.Email Archiving
E.Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: ACE

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NO.8 A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database's data and log
volumes.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 A customer's regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site
regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment.
How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A.A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B.RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C.Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from
merging.
D.Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage
array.
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: HH0-260
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Certified Implementer File Services)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about encryption on a HCP? (Choose three.)
A. Once enabled, encryption cannot be disabled.
B. The encryption key is accessible through the system management console.
C. Encryption can only be enabled at the time of installation.
D. The encryption key must be written down and given to the customer.
E. The encryption key is displayed several times during the installation process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which OS LUN size do all HCP 300 configurations use?
A. 20 GB
B. 30 GB
C. 50 GB
D. 400 GB
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer has an existing HCP 500 consisting of four storages nodes. They have just
purchased an additional HCP 500 and you are informed that you will be performing the replication
setup.
What is the requirement prior to setting up replication?
A. trusted replication server certificates
B. replication link
C. outbound link name
D. inbound link name
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer wants to use IP addresses which conflict with the default HCP network
settings. As a result you need to change the back-end IP addresses for each HCP node.
Which HCP network settings should you change?
A. the back-end gateway router IP address
B. the back-end subnet mask
C. the first three octets of the back-end IP addresses
D. the fourth octet of the back-end IP addresses
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which node architecture is used by the HCP 500?
A. SAIN
B. PAIN
C. RAIN
D. NAIN
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer wants to ingest around 1 million files residing in several Windows 2003 and
RedHat Linux servers into three newly created HCP tenants and namespaces.
Which two procedures do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from HCP client tools for Linux.
B. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from Linux server.
C. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from HCP client tools for Windows.
D. Use copy, move and create directory functions available from Windows server.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 You have performed an upgrade on a customer's HCP. You complete the upgrade and verify
that all the nodes are online and then give the system back to the customer. A few minutes later,
the customer
complains that they can read existing content but they cannot create new content on the HCP.
Which step was missed?
A. The install user password was changed.
B. The upgrade was not committed.
C. The rollback was not performed.
D. The system management console is disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A storage administrator on a customer site is performing a diagnosis of the HCP system by
reviewing the system event logs.
Which two are recorded in the system events log? (Choose two.)
A. logical volume failures
B. namespace list
C. users deleted
D. roles assigned
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about the HCP back-end network? (Choose two.)
A. All nodes in a HCP system must be on the same system-specific private back-end IP subnet.
B. All nodes in a HCP system must be split across a dual-redundant private back-end IP subnet.
C. The fourth octet of the back-end IP addresses should not be changed after it has been
configured.
D. The fourth octet of the back-end IP addresses must match the fourth octets used in the front-end
IP
addresses.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which three tenant management console permissions does the security role have on a HCP?
(Choose three.)
A. View namespace access protocol configurations.
B. View tenant log messages about security events.
C. View tenant overview.
D. Monitor replication.
E. Modify tenant management console security settings (HCP tenants only).
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.11 You are adding two more volumes into each node of a HCP 500 DL. The storage administrator
informs you that all SAN volumes have been created, zoned and presented to the HCP.
Which LUN number presented to the HCP will cause a problem.?
A. 5
B. 128
C. 130
D. 131
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the required zone configuration of a SAN fabric to support a HCP 500?
A. one global zone containing all HCP nodes World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the HBA ports and
the
storage ports
B. one zone per HCP node containing two members: World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the HBA
port
and the storage port
C. two mirrored zones; one containing the even numbered World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the
HBA
port and the storage port; the other containing odd numbered ports
D. two zones: one zone containing all HCP nodes World Wide Port Names (WWPN) of the HBA ports
and
the second zone containing all the storage ports
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which three replication types are supported by HCP? (Choose three.)
A. chain
B. many-to-one
C. one-to-many
D. bidirectional
E. link level
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 A customer expects to store 4 billion objects with an initial HCP configuration. Search is not
required at this time.
Which configuration will meet the requirements for this customer?
A. HCP 300 with ten storage nodes
B. HCP 500 with two storage nodes
C. HCP 300 with four storage nodes
D. HCP 500 with eight storage nodes
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two factors should you consider prior to performing an upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. the physical location of the highest numbered search node
B. the physical location of the highest numbered storage node
C. the install user password
D. the service user password
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 You are establishing a replication link between two HCP platforms. You set the performance
level as
part of the configuration options. What does this setting indicate?
A. the server priority rate for nodes associated with that replication link
B. the amount of bandwidth made available for replication on the link
C. the number of concurrent replication operations that can occur on each node
D. the data transfer rate associated with each tenant namespace
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are configuring a HCP 500 solution with AMS 2100 storage. You choose to configure the
storage devices first in the list of tasks associated with this process.
What is the reason for sequencing the tasks in this way?
A. The HCP software must first be installed on the AMS 2100 for access.
B. Formatting the storage containers will take a considerable amount of time.
C. You must have the data LUNs established before you can install the core OS.
D. The HCP command LUN must be established on the AMS 2100.
Answer: B

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NO.18 In a SAIN based HCP solution, which RAID protection scheme is considered standard use with
an
AMS 2000 system?
A. RAID 5 (6+1)
B. RAID 6 (5+2)
C. RAID 6 (6+2)
D. RAID 5 (7+1)
Answer: B

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NO.19 A customer will be removing old Windows file servers and moving existing data to the default
namespace on their new HCP 500.
Which protocol is recommended to accomplish the move?
A. CIFS
B. HTTP
C. REST
D. NFS
Answer: A

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NO.20 How should the RAID group(s) and logical volume(s) be configured on a HCP 300 node?
A. three RAID groups each with three logical volumes
B. three RAID groups each with a single logical volume
C. a single RAID group with a single logical volume
D. a single RAID group with three logical volumes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HD0-400
Exam Name: HDI (HDI Qualified Customer Support Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which statement best describes a problem?
A. A problem is a group of incidents that recur occasionally.
B. A problem is a group of incidents with different symptoms.
C. A problem is a significant incident with an unknown cause.
D. A problem is a single incident with a known solution.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A. The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B. The customer previous experience with the Support Centre.
C. The customer position in the business.
D. The level of support provided by the Support Centre.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement best describes a team?
A. A team is a forum for creativity and self expression.
B. A team is a group of people working to accomplish the same goals.
C. A team is a group of strong personalities.
D. A team is an open, honest environment.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the best reason for using paraphrasing?
A. Using paraphrasing gives the customer a chance to tell you if you have understood
them.
B. Using paraphrasing increases the customer knowledge of technical terminology.
C. Use paraphrasing to repeat the customer words back to them.
D. Use paraphrasing to tell the customer what they should have done.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the most important reason for using customer satisfaction surveys?
A. Customer satisfaction surveys allow customers to say what they really think without
offending Support Centre staff.
B. Customer satisfaction surveys help to determine if customer service expectations are
being met.
C. Customer satisfaction surveys provide an accurate set of management reports on SLA
performance.
D. Customer satisfaction surveys provide information that can be used to assess blame
for problems.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement best describes your role in the incident management process?
A. Conduct customer satisfaction surveys for each incident.
B. Escalate all incidents to other groups.
C. Log and document all incidents.
D. Resolve each incident to the customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the concept of teamwork?
A. Teamwork involves competing with others to prove you are the best.
B. Teamwork involves having all team members participate.
C. Teamwork involves keeping ideas to yourself in case they do not work.
D. Teamwork involves working separately to achieve personal goals.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When is it most appropriate to escalate an incident to a manager?
A. Escalate an incident if the customer begins to complain.
B. Escalate an incident the customer is emotional.
C. Escalate an incident if the customer requests to speak to a manager.
D. Escalate an incident if the Support Centre is short of staff.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a best practice for effective cross-cultural communication?
A. Ask open questions.
B. Increase the pace of the call.
C. Repeat everything that the customer says.
D. Use proper language expressions.
Answer: D

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NO.10 How can active listening help you?
A. Active listening helps to build a wider knowledge base for the organisation.
B. Active listening improves overall performance against SLAs.
C. Active listening increases the customer level of satisfaction.
D. Active listening reduces the need for you to talk all day.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is a best practice for negotiating with Certkiller .com?
A. Look at the problem from the customer perspective.
B. Only provide a service that is included in the SLA.
C. Strictly follow the Support Centre policies.
D. Transfer the customer to your supervisor if they disagree with you.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Ensure that the customer complies with the SLA.
B. Manage the customer expectations.
C. Pass all customer inquiries to level 2 support.
D. Resolve all customer incidents without escalation.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the most important reason for maintaining legal compliance in the Support
Centre?
A. Maintaining legal compliance prevents employees from downloading music.
B. Maintaining legal compliance prevents unauthorised internet usage.
C. Maintaining legal compliance protects identity information.
D. Maintaining legal compliance protects your personal rights.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a best practice for dealing with an abusive customer?
A. Ignore the customer language.
B. Maintain your professionalism.
C. Show empathy and sympathy.
D. Use your active listening skills.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a best practice for call management?
A. Listen to the customer description of the incident.
B. Provide the customer with details of the SLA.
C. Ask the customer for a written communication.
D. Use the CRM system to guide the call.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Certkiller .com calls with a problem you know they could solve using the Support Centre
web site. What is a best practice for encouraging the customer to try self-help?
A. Ask if they have tried the website and give them the answer.
B. Respectfully talk them through the self-help process.
C. Send them an e-mail with a link to the web site.
D. Tell them that the answer is on the web site and give them the URL.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your help desk/support centre wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of
the main sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What behaviour should be avoided when talking with Certkiller .com on the telephone?
A. Addressing the customer by name.
B. Asking the customer technical questions.
C. Telling the customer to hold.
D. Using terms of endearment.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the most important reason why Support Centres monitor incidents?
A. Incident monitoring is done by all good Support Centres.
B. Incident monitoring is an ITIL best practice.
C. Incident monitoring is the Support Centre primary function.
D. Incident monitoring results in improved quality of services.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which is a best practice for dealing with stress?
A. Drink more water.
B. Ignore the stress.
C. Take short naps when you can.
D. Talk to someone about your concerns.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: GB0-280
Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Routing Networks)
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Total Q&A: 400 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are the preparations before you make IKE configuration? ( )
A. Decide the authentication algorithm during the IKE exchange.
B. Decide the encryption algorithm during the IKE exchange.
C. Decide the DH algorithm during the IKE exchange.
D. Decide the identity authentication mechanism for the exchange parties.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Topic 5, C
C

NO.2 Which of the following are the wrong description to the BGP route attributes? ( )
A. The router should propagate the attribute to other peers when it receives a transitional attribute,
such as metric.
B. Mandatory attributes refer to the essential attribute of each route, such as the next hop; while
the optional can be omitted.
C. Local-preference is for the route to reach the destination with priority in the AS internal.
D. Community identifies a group of routers with the same attributes. It has something to do with
the AS, but nothing with the IP subnet.
Answer: A,D

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Topic 7, G
G

NO.3 According to the OSPF protocol, for a intra-area router operating in the Stub area, which kind
of
LSA is impossible to appear in its LSDB? ( )
A. Router LSA (Type = 1);
B. Network LSA (Type = 2);
C. Network Summary LSA (Type = 3);
D. ASBR Summary LSA (Type = 4);
E. AS External LSA (Type = 5);
Answer: E

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Topic 1, D
D

NO.4 OSPF categorizes the AS external route into 2 parts: Type 1 and Type 2. Which of the following
are Type 1 AS external routes? ( )
A. Imported static routes.
B. Imported RIP routes.
C. Imported routes from other ASs.
D. Imported BGP routes.
Answer: A,B,C

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Topic 4, B
B

NO.5 Which of the following are right about the ACL rule in the IPSEC? ( )
A. permit means to enable IPSEC on the defined data flow
B. deny means to transparently transmit and disable the IPSEC on the defined data flow
C. Data flow without definition will be discarded
D. Data flow without definition will be transparently transmitted
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Between IBGP peers is not always physically direct-connected; while between the EBGP peers
there must be a physically connected link. ( )
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Topic 6, E
E

NO.7 For a router running the OSPF protocol, Router ID is the unique identifier of a router.
According to
the protocol, the Router ID must be unique in the following scope ( )
A. In the network segment
B. In the area
C. In the AS internal
D. In the whole Internet
Answer: C

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Topic 4, B
B

NO.8 Topic 1, D
D
1. To check the IP address of the DR and BDR in the OSPF area, you can use ( )
A. display ospf routing
B. display ospf error
C. display ospf interface
D. display ospf peer
Answer: C,D

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Topic 2, A
A

NO.9 Which of the following are right about BGP route dampening? ( )
A. BGP route dampening is caused by the un-stability of the route.
B. The penalty of route flapping becomes heavier with time going.
C. The route under penalty will not be notified until it disappears from the routing table.
D. When there is route flapping, the Update packet will be advertised repeatedly in the network.
Answer: A,D

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Topic 3, F
F

NO.10 Which of the following are right about BGP confederation? ( )
A. It partitions an AS into several sub-ASs. The IBGP peer in the sub-AS fully connects to each
other, and meanwhile connects to other sub-ASs.
B. The confederation can easily detect the route loop in the AS.
C. EBGP is adopted between the sub-ASs, the confederation itself and the AS external.
D. Such important information as the next hop, MED and Local-Preference will not lose when
traversing the sub-AS.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Topic 6, E
E

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Exam Code: FCESP
Exam Name: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Email Security Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following back-end servers can NOT be used to provide Recipient Verification?
A. LDAP servers
B. POP3 servers
C. RADIUS servers
D. SMTP servers
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 How can a FortiMail administrator view or search archived emails?
A. through POP3, IMAP or Web-based manager
B. through POP3 and IMAP
C. through Webmail only
D. through Web-based manager only
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?
A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent
Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the recommended procedure to identify emails encoded in a specific charset?
A. Configure a Dictionary profile entry and associate it to the content profile section Content
Monitor and Filtering.
B. Create a banned word entry in an Antispam profile.
C. Charset encoding cannot be detected.
D. Enable Heuristic Scanning in an Antivirus profile.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following FortiMail profile types apply to IP-based policies only?
A. Session profile
B. Content profile
C. IP pool
D. Antispam profile
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true regarding Session-based antispam techniques?
A. The entire mail content is inspected.
B. They are enabled in the session profile only.
C. SMTP commands, sender domain and IP address are checked.
D. They are checked after application-based antispam techniques.
Answer: C

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7. A FortiMail administrator must enforce the following company policy:
1. All emails containing executable attachments must be detected.
2. This detection must be file name independent. For example, if a user renames an executable
from .exe to .txt, the file should still be detected.
Which FortiMail inspection technique should the administrator apply?
A. Content profile > Attachment filtering rule to block all executable extensions
B. Content profile > File Type filtering rule to block all executable files
C. Antispam profile > Banned Word entry to block all executable files
D. Content profile > Content Monitor entry to block all executable files
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-102
Exam Name: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What Management Review (MR) determines whether IT is working on the right things and clarifies the
business value of proposed projects?
A. Policy and Control
B. Portfolio
C. Release Readiness
D. Service Alignment
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a goal of the Plan phase?
A. Delivered Services are adaptable to the changing needs of the business
B. Packaged product deployments are deployed in line with business requirements
C. To ensure that deployed services operated in line with the agreed-to SLA targets
D. To establish an integrated approach to IT Service Management activities
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which is a goal of MOF?
A. ensure that business oversight governs IT service lifecycle activity to promote business/IT alignment
B. ensure that the investment in IT delivers expected business value at an acceptable level of risk
C. provide guidance to Finance and Accounting groups to successfully audit services delivered by IT
D. provide a common reference standard for any enterprise offering IT services to internal and external
customers
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Define service requirements
B. Monitoring and improving plans
C. Planning
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?
A. Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer
B. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase
C. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase
D. Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase
Answer: C

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NO.7 What do the goals of the Reliability SMF include?
A. Service maintainability is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
B. Service Continuity is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which SMF provides root cause analysis?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Stabilizing
D. Testing
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the focus of the Change and Configuration SMF in the Plan phase include?
A. Architectural change
B. Corporate strategy transfer to IT strategy
C. Legal and compliance representation
D. Process and procedure
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement of the IT service lifecycle is not correct?
A. It isolates risk to the Operate phase.
B. It addresses the design and delivery of the IT service.
C. It describes the life of an IT service.
D. It represents planning and optimizing the IT service to align with the business strategy.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

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NO.12 What does MOF organize?
A. Activities and processes into SMF, which are grouped together in phases that mirror the IT service
lifecycle.
B. Activities and processes into phases, which are grouped into SMFs that mirror the IT service lifecycle.
C. Activities and processes into SMFs, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
D. Activities and processes into phases, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What do the steps to setting policy not include?
A. reviewing legal compliance
B. review and maintain policies
C. publish policies
D. validate policies
Answer: A

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NO.14 Is the Portfolio Management Review focused on understanding the state of supply and demand for IT
services and directing investments to make sure that the business value of IT is realized?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which statement is true about the SMFs in the Operate Phase?
A. All SMFs feed the Deliver Phase.
B. The Customer Service SMF focuses on how to resolve complex problems.
C. The SMFs are dependant on each other.
D. The SMFs are sequential.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-110
Exam Name: EXIN (Foundation Bridge Exam IT Service Management ISO/IEC 20000)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. the Service Level Plans
B. the Service Management Plans
C. the SLAs with the other parties
D. the SLAs with the customers
Answer: D

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NO.2 When improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure ongoing
compliance with the service providerWhen improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to
be considered to ensure on-going compliance with the service provider? corporate objectives /
requirements?
A. A competitor process managementsystemA competitor? process management system
B. Any standards defined by the company itself
C. The budget available to the Personnel Department
D. The time to update the process documentation
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Service
Management System?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement.
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions.
C. Review the Service Management System at least annually.
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the definition of quality according to ISO 9000?
A. Quality is when all features of a service which are agreed with the customer are being delivered to the
customer.
B. Quality is when the expectations from the customer to a certain service or product are being delivered
to the customer.
C. Quality is when the requirements and expectations of all stakeholders involved in the product lifecycle
are being fulfilled.
D. Quality is when the agreed service levels of a specific and defined service are met during morethen six
subsequent periods.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered
certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it
is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.2 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.4 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology
Officer. The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec
that you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.7 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.9 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network
behaviorclosely.
How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.10 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

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NO.11 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.12 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI model
does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.14 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.15 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards? A.
Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.18 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

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NO.20 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: A,C

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NO.21 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

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NO.22 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.23 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagram will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.24 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.25 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: A,D

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NO.26 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.27 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.28 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

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NO.29 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.30 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port? A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any ->
10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

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