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Exam Code: OMG-OCUP-300
Exam Name: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Advanced Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are the ways that the UML metamodel reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package? (Choose two)
A. specializes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
B. stereotypes meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
C. exports and generalizes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
D. imports and specializes metaclasses in the InfrastructureLibrary
E. is instantiated from meta-metaclasses that are defined in the InfrastructureLibrary
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 What does the protocol conformance between two protocol state machines mean?
A. the specific state machine must abide by the behavior of the general state machine
B. all triggers in the two protocol state machines must be the same
C. the two protocol state machines must be the same
D. the general state machine must abide by the behavior of the specific state machine
E. the specific state machine must have the same number of states and transitions as the general
machine
Answer: A

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NO.3 In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which
class is most likely created to describe the package itself?
A. Manifestation
B. Device
C. DeploymentSpecification
D. ExecutionEnvironment
E. Artifact
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
D. p is a port providing a system service.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which stereotype CANNOT be used to elaborate the semantic intent of an Artifact instance?
A. <<library>>
B. <<executable>>
C. <<script>>
D. <<source>>
E. <<specification>>
Answer: E

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NO.6 What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)
A. transformation
B. upper bound
C. ordering
D. effect
E. weight
F. selection
Answer: D,F

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NO.7 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
C. objects continue to exist
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the exhibit, what is NOT true of ReclassifyObjectAction?
A. It has an output pin providing exactly one object.
B. It refers to any number of old classifiers.
C. It refers to any number of new classifiers.
D. It has an input pin taking exactly one object.
E. The default value for replacing all old classifiers is false.
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. none
D. eight
Answer: B

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NO.10 How can UML be extended? (Choose two)
A. using Interface Definition Library (IDL)
B. using the Object Constraint Language (OCL)
C. using XML Metadata Interchange (XMI)
D. using profiles
E. reusing part of the UML infrastructure library and augmenting it with metaclasses and relationships
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 What is true about a model in UML 2.0?
A. cannot contain another model
B. can represent only software systems
C. is a kind of package
D. is a kind of component
E. can represent all system structures
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is a protocol of an interface?
A. procedure that implements the communications-based behavioral features of the interface
B. kind of behavior that describes the implementation of the object that realizes the interface
C. kind of state machine that defines ordering constraints on the behavioral features of the interface
D. interaction specification associated with the interface
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports.?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
D. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statements are true about OCL? (Choose three)
A. OCL is a query language.
B. OCL is a programming and procedural language.
C. OCL is a typed language.
D. OCL is a procedural language.
E. OCL is a specification language.
F. OCL is a programming language.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 What is true about an InformationItem in UML 2.0?
A. is not an abstraction
B. can have generalization
C. can have associations
D. is not instantiable
E. can have features
Answer: D

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NO.16 The OCL dot operator may NOT traverse which classifier property?
A. operations
B. association ends
C. queries
D. attributes
Answer: A

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NO.17 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. AcceptCallAction
B. AcceptEventAction
C. ReadExtentAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: A

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NO.18 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
B. p is a port providing a system service.
C. p is a hidden port.
D. p is a behavior port.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which UML 2.0 Superstructure package reuses the InfrastructureLibrary package?
A. Classes::Core
B. CompositeStructures::Core
C. Structures::Kernel
D. Classes::Kernel
E. Kernel::Classes
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is wrong in this deployment diagram exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Icons are swapped.
B. Interface on Order should point up.
C. <<manifest>> arrow should have a dashed line.
D. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be hollow.
E. <<manifest>> arrowhead should be solid.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Name: Novell (Advanced Novell Network Management )
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NO.1 Which RAID levels can be implemented with NSS? (Choose two)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 .DRAG DROP
Listed are the SET parameters used that instruct the server how to respond to an
abend and the description for each SET parameter.
Drag the parameter to the appropriate description.
Answer:

NO.3 .You are working in a pure IP environment and the workstation is not
communicating with the server.
Which are some valid troubleshooting steps that can be executed on the workstation to
help identify the problem? (Choose three)
A. Ping the server.
B. Use TRACERT.
C. Verify that DSTRACE is not running.
D. Use CONFIG to verify that the network board is bound.
E. Verify the workstation IP address with the IPCONFIG command.
F. RUN DSTRACE to verify there are no DS communication issues between the
workstation and server.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.4 After a NetWare 6 server migration, you have noticed that device drivers are not
loading. These drivers need to be placed in the directory where SERVER.EXE
resides.
Where can you copy these drivers from?
A. C:\DRIVERS
B. SYS:SYSTEM
C. STS:ETC\DRIVERS
D. SYS:SYSTEM\DRIVERS
E. C:\NWSERVER\DRIVERS
Answer: E

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NO.5 .An iFolder user has discovered that new files are not being synchronized to his
server, while at the same time changes to existing files are being synchronized.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The conflict bin is too small.
B. Corrupted file maps are dirmaps.
C. The computer does not have sync rights.
D. The server does not have enough disk space.
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which statements are true about the source server when doing a server migration to
NetWare 6? (Choose two)
A. The source server must be running IP.
B. Any NetWare 3.x server and higher can be migrated to NetWare 6.
C. The source server's volumes must be the same size as the destination server's volumes.
D. If the source server is NetWare 4, the volumes must have long name space support
added.
E. The person performing the migration must have the Supervisor right to the source
server's file system.
Answer: D, E

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NO.7 Which is a useful troubleshooting step if a server is not communicating?
A. Verify that cache buffers are over 20%.
B. Verify that the server is not out of packet receive buffers.
C. Verify that the DOS=HIGH command is not in CONFIG.SYS.
D. Remove memory managers from loading in AUTOEXEC.NCF.
Answer: B

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NO.8 .There are problems when starting your NetWare 6 server.
Which command helps to identify at which point modules are loading during the server
startup?
A. LIST
B. CONFIG
C. STARTUP
D. MODULES
E. LIST STAGE
Answer: E

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NO.9 .You have just completed installing NCS and are now going to create a shared disk
partition.
Which utility is used to create a shared disk partition?
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. Server Manager
E. NWCONFIG.NLM
Answer: C

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NO.10 .When performing a migration to a NetWare 6 server, which are valid statements
regarding copying volumes? (Choose two)
A. The volumes cannot be compressed.
B. The source and destination server's volumes must be NSS.
C. You do not need to copy all of the volumes at the same time.
D. The source and destination server's volume size must be the same.
E. The source and destination server's volume names must be the same.
Answer: C, E

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NO.11 In a NCS environment, a resource state of ALERT has been placed on a resource.
What is a reason that a resource would be in an ALERT state?
A. The resource is shut down or in an inactive state.
B. The resource is unloading from the server it was running on.
C. The resource is not running and requires administrator intervention.
D. There isn't an assigned node up that the resource can be loaded on.
E. The Start, Failover, or Failback mode for the resource has been set to manual.
Answer: E

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NO.12 When checking the state of a cluster resource, what color will the resource appear as, if it
is unknown?
A. Red
B. Gray
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. Blank (or no color)
Answer: B

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NO.13 You just added a second hard drive to your RAID system. Click the area of the graphic
that redistributes data across all RAID devices, including the new hard drive.
Answer:
Explanation: Click on Restripe
page 6-9 Restriping redistributes data across all Raid devices, including the new hard
drive.

NO.14 .What happens during the Finish eDirectory Migration stage of a server migration to
NetWare 6 process? (Choose two)
A. The NICI files are copied.
B. The licenses are installed.
C. The volume objects are updated.
D. The destination server is restarted.
E. The file trustee assignment are restored.
Answer: C, E

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NO.15 Which abend is almost always memory related?
A. Page fault
B. Invalid Opcode
C. Non Maskable Interrupt
D. General Protection Processor Exception
E. Ate Poison Pill in SbdWriteNode Tick given by some other node.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Using the UAL licensing model, where is it recommended to install user license if the
server object resides in the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container and the user
objects reside in the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container?
A. In any container.
B. In the Security container.
C. In the DIGITALAIR container.
D. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container.
E. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
F. In the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
Answer: E

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NO.17 .Shown are properties of the DACLUSTER object. There are applications in the
cluster that you want to load before others.
Click on the tab that will allow you to specify the order that applications load within
the cluster.
Answer:

NO.18 Which are tools you can use at the server console prompt to help troubleshoot IP
problems? (Choose two)
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
E. IPCONFIG
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 .You want to modify your NCS environment by changing node assignment to
resource using ConsoleOne.
Which object's properties page allows you to change node assignments?
A. Any node object
B. The cluster object
C. The master node object
D. The Cluster ADMIN object
E. Any cluster-enabled resource or volume object
Answer: B

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NO.20 .If an object is missing a mandatory attribute, how will this object be displayed in
ConsoleOne?
A. As a grayed-out object.
B. As a black-and-white object.
C. As a mark in a circle.
D. As a mar in a square.
E. As two numbers with a dash between them (eg. 9-6).
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which statement is true about eDirectory partitions?
A.Partitions can overlap each other.
B.A container object can reside in 2 partitions.
C.A partition provides fault tolerance for the file system.
D.Partitions are logical divisions of eDirectory that enable the database to be divided among several
servers.
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Time synchronization strategy
B.Number of objects in the tree
C.Number of servers in the tree
D.Physical network infrastructure
E.Number of partitions and replicas
Correct:D

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NO.3 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A.Master
B.Read-only
C.Read/write
D.Filtered replica
E.Subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding the placement of eDirectory objects? (Choose 2.)
A.Place application objects in their own container.
B.Don't place user objects near the top of the tree.
C.If possible, don't place objects deep within a tree.
D.If possible, don't place server objects within the same container.
E.Server objects should be placed near the user objects they are servicing.
Correct:C E

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NO.5 What is a part of analyzing user needs when creating an accessibility needs analysis document?
A.Design a strategy for mobile users.
B.Specify ZENworks object configurations.
C.Specify security rights to particular objects.
D.Gather information related to physical network resource needs.
E.Create guidelines that determine how eDirectory objects are used to create the user environment.
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your
eDirectory tree?
A.It is the best design type to handle future growth.
B.It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.
C.It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.
D.It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.
E.It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.
Correct:C

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NO.7 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. How many subordinate references will exist
in this tree?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
F.9
G.12
Correct:E

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NO.8 What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Partition and replica plan
B.Time synchronization strategy
C.Number of objects in the tree
D.Number of servers in the tree
E.Physical network infrastructure
Correct:E

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NO.9 Which statement is true regarding the Priority Sync feature?
A.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting any partition.
B.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the root partition.
C.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the same partition.
D.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting parent or child
partitions.
Correct:C

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NO.10 What tasks are helpful in completing a needs analysis when designing an eDirectory tree?
(Choose 2.)
A.Gather information about network connectivity
B.Gather information about resources that users access
C.Gather information to decide on a replica placement strategy
D.Gather information to estimate the time for each phase of design
E.Gather information to decide which server should be the time provider
Correct:A B

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NO.1 Click the Drag-and-Drop button to begin. Match each NetWare 6 feature with its description.
Correct:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4

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NO.2 Which objects can be children of the tree object? (Choose 2.)
A.Admin
B.Country
C.Organization
D.License Container
E.Organizational unit
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Which email program only offers a client side (front-end) application?
A.Lotus
B.Eudora
C.Exchange
D.GroupWise
Correct:B

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NO.4 You are using the default configuration on your server. To access Web Manager from your
workstation, you open a browser, enter the server's IP address, and then enter which port number?
A.443
B.636
C.2200
D.8008
E.8009
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which statements regarding login scripts are true? (Choose 2.)
A.The default login script can be edited.
B.Only one profile login script per user is allowed.
C.It is recommended to use user login scripts rather than container login scripts.
D.If the user login script is executed, the default login script is never executed.
E.Even if a user's parent container does not have a login script, a different container login script can be
executed for that user.
Correct:B D

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NO.6 In an NDPS environment, which type of notification needs to be configured for a printer
operator to be notified when intervention is required?
A.Popup
B.Log-file
C.Job-owner
D.Programmatic
E.Interested-party
Correct:E

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NO.7 Which is the top-most object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Tree object
B.Domain object
C.Country object
D.Organization object
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which utility's only function is to set directory and file attributes?
A.Flag
B.Filer
C.NDIR
D.NCOPY
Correct:A

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NO.9 Someone is trying to access your network by logging in as Admin. Which is the simplest and
most effective method for preventing this type of security breach?
A.Hide the Admin object.
B.Rename the Admin object.
C.Use an IRF to prohibit global access.
D.Place an intruder detection limit on the Admin account.
E.Make another user security equivalent to the Admin object.
Correct:B

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NO.10 How are file system effective rights calculated?
A.All rights granted to the user explicitly and through other objects, minus IRFs
B.Between explicit assignments and assignments through other objects the most restrictive rights are
applied, minus IRFs
C.Between explicit assignments and assignments through other objects the least restrictive rights are
applied, minus IRFs
D.The least restrictive rights granted to the user through eDirectory and the most restrictive granted to the
user through the file system, minus IRFs
Correct:A

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NO.11 The Rhernandez user object exists in the DEL.DIGITALAIR container. Which is an example of a
typeless distinguished name for Rhernandez?
A.RHERNANDEZ..
B.CN=RHERNANDEZ
C.RHERNANDEZ.DIGITALAIR
D..RHERNANDEZ.DEL.DIGITALAIR
E..CN=RHERNANDEZ.OU=DEL.O=DIGITALAIR
Correct:D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit Button to Begin. The Exhibit contains the Novell Client for Windows 2000
property page. Which tab allows you to control the configuration setting of Network
Neighborhood to hide the server page?
A.Client
B.Advanced Login
C.Default Capture
D.Location Profiles
E.Advanced Menu Settings
Correct:E

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NO.13 In an NDPS printing environment, which utility do you use to configure event notification?
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Remote Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
Correct:E

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding the Public trustee? (Choose 2.)
A.The Public trustee is the tree object.
B.By default, all eDirectory objects are security equivalent to Public.
C.By default, Public allows users to view any other object in the tree before authenticating.
D.By default, users must be authenticated before receiving rights through the Public trustee.
E.Any rights assigned by the tree object take precedence to rights assigned by the Public trustee.
Correct:B C

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NO.15 Which MAP command creates a search drive in the last possible search position?
A.MAP L16:=.volume.ou.organization:path
B.MAP S16:=.volume.ou.organization:path
C.MAP S16:=.path:volume.ou.organization
D.MAP S26:=.volume.ou.organization:path
E.MAP S26:=.path:volume.ou.organization
Correct:B

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NO.16 Enter the console command that improves security by not allowing a malicious NLM to be run
from the floppy disk drive. Answer:
A.SECURECONSOLE
Correct:A

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NO.17 What is used to load the print service manager?
A.iManager
B.ConsoleOne
C.NDPS Broker
D.Server console prompt
Correct:D

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NO.18 Which statements are true regarding setting identifier variables in login scripts? (Choose 2.)
A.They must be written in initial caps.
B.They must be written in lower case.
C.They must be written in upper case.
D.They must preceded by the pound (#) sign.
E.They must be preceded by the percent (%) sign.
F.They must be preceded by the underscore (_) sign.
Correct:C E

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NO.19 Click the Point-and-Click button to begin. You are setting up a GroupWise rule to forward all
messages received from your manager. Click the button or option that allows you to forward the
message.
Correct:

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NO.20 Which are characteristics of a controlled access printer? (Choose 2.)
A.It has low security.
B.It provides plug-and print capabilities.
C.It allows for little administrative configuration.
D.It is created and administered as an eDirectory object.
E.It offers a full range of event and status notification options.
Correct:D E

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Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your
eDirectory tree?
A.It is the best design type to handle future growth.
B.It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.
C.It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.
D.It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.
E.It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.
Correct:C

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NO.2 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. How many subordinate references will exist
in this tree?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
F.9
G.12
Correct:E

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NO.3 Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Time synchronization strategy
B.Number of objects in the tree
C.Number of servers in the tree
D.Physical network infrastructure
E.Number of partitions and replicas
Correct:D

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NO.4 What tasks are helpful in completing a needs analysis when designing an eDirectory tree?
(Choose 2.)
A.Gather information about network connectivity
B.Gather information about resources that users access
C.Gather information to decide on a replica placement strategy
D.Gather information to estimate the time for each phase of design
E.Gather information to decide which server should be the time provider
Correct:A B

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding the placement of eDirectory objects? (Choose 2.)
A.Place application objects in their own container.
B.Don't place user objects near the top of the tree.
C.If possible, don't place objects deep within a tree.
D.If possible, don't place server objects within the same container.
E.Server objects should be placed near the user objects they are servicing.
Correct:C E

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding the Priority Sync feature?
A.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting any partition.
B.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the root partition.
C.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the same partition.
D.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting parent or child
partitions.
Correct:C

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NO.7 What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Partition and replica plan
B.Time synchronization strategy
C.Number of objects in the tree
D.Number of servers in the tree
E.Physical network infrastructure
Correct:E

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NO.8 Which statement is true about eDirectory partitions?
A.Partitions can overlap each other.
B.A container object can reside in 2 partitions.
C.A partition provides fault tolerance for the file system.
D.Partitions are logical divisions of eDirectory that enable the database to be divided among several
servers.
Correct:D

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NO.9 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A.Master
B.Read-only
C.Read/write
D.Filtered replica
E.Subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.10 What is a part of analyzing user needs when creating an accessibility needs analysis document?
A.Design a strategy for mobile users.
B.Specify ZENworks object configurations.
C.Specify security rights to particular objects.
D.Gather information related to physical network resource needs.
E.Create guidelines that determine how eDirectory objects are used to create the user environment.
Correct:D

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NO.1 Which parameter allows you to set the location in your eDirectory tree where user accounts
exist, allowing older versions of the Novell Client that aren't directory-aware to authenticate to the
server?
A.User Context
B.Primary Server
C.Bindery Context
D.Preferred Server
E.Emulation Context
F.Compatibility Mode Driver
G.NetWare 3 Emulation Mode
Correct:C

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NO.2 In a time provider group, which server carries the most weight when voting on a time?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Reference
D.Secondary
E.Single reference
Correct:C

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NO.3 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 2 to NetWare 6.5. The server
hardware uses a Pentium III 500 MHz Celeron CPU, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a
200 MB DOS partition, and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, NetWare 6.5 requires a PIII 750 MHz CPU or later.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 isn't compatible with Celeron processors.
D.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
E.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
F.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
G.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
Correct:G

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NO.4 You're configuring an SLP Directory Agent on your NetWare 6.5 server. You want to statically
configure your server to communicate with another Directory Agent whose IP address is 10.0.0.4.
This server resides on a different network segment than your server. Which of the following is the
correct command to enter in the SLP.CFG file to accomplish this?
A.DA=10.0.0.4
B.SLPDA=10.0.0.4
C.DA IPV4 10.0.0.4
D.DA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
E.SLPDA IPV4 10.0.0.4
F.SLPDA IPV4, 10.0.0.4
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which is an example of the single reference time synchronization method for a network that
has 15 NetWare 6 servers?
A.1 primary time server and 14 secondary time servers
B.2 primary time servers and 13 secondary time servers
C.1 single reference time server and 14 secondary time servers
D.2 single reference time servers and 13 secondary time servers
E.1 reference time server, 2 primary time servers, and 12 secondary time servers
F.1 single reference time server, 1 primary time server, and 13 secondary time servers
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose 2)
A.There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B.Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C.Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D.Subordinate references can be changed to be a master replica without losing any information.
E.Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication channel.
Correct:A C

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NO.7 You are a regional network administrator remotely upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare
6.5. The NetWare 5.1 server has 512 MB of RAM, a 180 GB RAID 5 disk array with a 1 GB DOS
partition, and Support Pack 6 installed. Your user object has the Supervisor right to the container
where the server resides and the Browse right to the root of the tree. Will the upgrade be
successful?
A.No, the DOS partition is too small.
B.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM.
C.Yes, the system meets all prerequisite requirements.
D.No, you must have the Supervisor right to the root of the tree.
E.No, you must first install Support Pack 7 on the NetWare 5.1 server.
F.No, you can't remotely upgrade a server that uses a RAID disk array.
G.No, you can't perform a Remote Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server. You must use an In-Place Upgrade.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You just deleted the DATA volume from your NetWare 6.5 server. You realize that this was a
mistake and you need to restore it. By default, how long do you have before the volume is
automatically purged?
A.12 hours
B.36 hours
C.48 hours
D.72 hours
E.96 hours
F.It's too late, the volume has been purged. You must recreate it and restore data from a back up device.
Correct:E

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NO.9 In Public Key Cryptography, the _____________ key is used to decrypt an encrypted
transmission. Answer:
A.PRIVATE
Correct:A

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NO.10 What is another name for the server certificate?
A.WEP key
B.Key material object
C.Certificate authority
D.Certificate signing request
Correct:B

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NO.11 Deployment Manager fails when run from the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD on your
Windows 2000 Professional workstation with Novell Client 4.83 installed. What is the cause?
A.Deployment Manager requires Windows XP Home edition.
B.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Novell Client 4.83.
C.You must upgrade to Internet Explorer 6.0 or later on the workstation.
D.Deployment Manager is not compatible with Windows 2000 Professional.
E.Deployment Manager must be installed on the workstation before running the program.
F.The version of Deployment Manager on the Operating System CD only runs on Windows 95/98
workstations.
Correct:B

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NO.12 You recently completed a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server located in your
organization's Baltimore, MD. office. You realize that you forgot to install MySQL on the server
during the upgrade. Which NetWare utilities can you use to remotely install this product? (Choose
2)
A.iMonitor
B.iManager
C.ConsoleOne
D.Deployment Manager
E.NetWare Administrator
F.NetWare GUI Install utility using Remote Manager
Correct:D F

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NO.13 Which command will enable Transition Tracking System (TTS) on an NSS volume named DATA?
A.TTS
B.NSS /TTS=DATA
C.TTS VOLUME=DATA
D.NSS /TRANSACTION=DATA
E.NSS /TRANSACTIONTRACKING=DATA
Correct:D

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NO.14 You are upgrading a NetWare 6.0 server to NetWare 6.5. What command should you use to
mount the NetWare 6.5 Operating System CD as a volume on your NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD NTFS.NLM
C.LOAD NTFS.NSS
D.LOAD CDROM.NSS
E.LOAD CD9660.NSS
F.LOAD CD9660.NLM
G.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
H.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
I.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Correct:E

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NO.15 Your organization is implementing an e-commerce web site where external customers can shop
for and purchase products. It's imperative that you establish a secure web site to do this. Which
type of certificate authority should you use?
A.Public Certificate Authority
B.Internal Certificate Authority
C.External Certificate Authority
D.Integrated Certificate Authority
Correct:C

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NO.16 Which statements about using both SLP and configured lists for time synchronization are true?
(Choose 2)
A.Using both adds extra traffic on the network.
B.Using both provides fault tolerance for time synchronization.
C.Time doesn't synchronize if both SLP and configured lists are used.
D.Using both allows IP and IPX servers to synchronize with each other.
E.Using both shortens the amount of time it takes to synchronize time throughout the network.
Correct:A B

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NO.17 In which container is the organizational CA object found in your eDirectory tree?
A.KAP
B.NMAS
C.[ROOT]
D.Security
E.The same container where the server has been installed.
Correct:D

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button. You've configured your NetWare 6.5 server to function as a Dynamic
NAT router between two network segments, as shown in the exhibit. The workstations on the
private segment are running Windows 2000. The workstations on the public segment are running
Windows XP. A user on the public segment whose IP address is 209.5.1.2 wants to access a
shared folder on a workstation installed on the private segment whose IP address is 10.0.0.2. Will
the user be able to accomplish this?
A.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't support Windows shared folders.
B.No, Dynamic NAT isn't supported by Windows 2000 systems.
C.No, you must issue the SET ALLOW DYNAMIC PASSTHRU=ON command on the server first.
D.Yes, Dynamic NAT routing allows bi-directional shared folder access between segments.
E.No, Dynamic NAT doesn't allow hosts on the public segment to access hosts on the private segment.
Correct:E

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NO.19 Click the Point and Click button to begin. Click the Server Management Console management
task you would use to recover a forgotten pass phrase.
Correct:

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NO.20 Which time server type adjusts its clock 50% per polling interval?
A.Master
B.Primary
C.Secondary
D.Reference
E.Single reference
F.Secondary reference
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 50-V37-ENVCSE01
Exam Name: Novell (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.2 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.3 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.4 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.5 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.6 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.7 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.8 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.9 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.10 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.11 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.12 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.13 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.14 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.15 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.16 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.17 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.19 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.20 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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